Maybe you didn't say what you meant in the first post. What you said was that he had to use all his sick time BEFORE he could use FMLA. That is what I objected to. Of course he can (and should) use sick time in conjunction with FMLA to get paid. In your last post you changed it to using all your sick time before LTD. THAT statement is correct. So, if that is what you really meant in the first post, then we agree afterall.
Bottom line though, as someone already said, is to call Pete.
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